Left Join without duplicate rows 1 to 1 join. Make each row in one table only join to one row in the other table










-1














I'm trying to join table 1 to table 2 to get table 3. (See desired output) However, I can't seem to get it to work since there are so many options since the table only contains one value. A left join doesn't seem to work.



I found this: Left Join without duplicate rows from left table



which seems to match my use case, but Outer Apply is not in PrestoDB.



I essentially want to match each row in T1 with a single one in T2.



Desired Output










share|improve this question



















  • 2




    I removed the incompatible database tags. Please tag only with the database you are really using.
    – Gordon Linoff
    Nov 12 '18 at 20:06















-1














I'm trying to join table 1 to table 2 to get table 3. (See desired output) However, I can't seem to get it to work since there are so many options since the table only contains one value. A left join doesn't seem to work.



I found this: Left Join without duplicate rows from left table



which seems to match my use case, but Outer Apply is not in PrestoDB.



I essentially want to match each row in T1 with a single one in T2.



Desired Output










share|improve this question



















  • 2




    I removed the incompatible database tags. Please tag only with the database you are really using.
    – Gordon Linoff
    Nov 12 '18 at 20:06













-1












-1








-1







I'm trying to join table 1 to table 2 to get table 3. (See desired output) However, I can't seem to get it to work since there are so many options since the table only contains one value. A left join doesn't seem to work.



I found this: Left Join without duplicate rows from left table



which seems to match my use case, but Outer Apply is not in PrestoDB.



I essentially want to match each row in T1 with a single one in T2.



Desired Output










share|improve this question















I'm trying to join table 1 to table 2 to get table 3. (See desired output) However, I can't seem to get it to work since there are so many options since the table only contains one value. A left join doesn't seem to work.



I found this: Left Join without duplicate rows from left table



which seems to match my use case, but Outer Apply is not in PrestoDB.



I essentially want to match each row in T1 with a single one in T2.



Desired Output







sql






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited Nov 12 '18 at 20:06









Gordon Linoff

759k35293399




759k35293399










asked Nov 12 '18 at 20:00









apple1234

1




1







  • 2




    I removed the incompatible database tags. Please tag only with the database you are really using.
    – Gordon Linoff
    Nov 12 '18 at 20:06












  • 2




    I removed the incompatible database tags. Please tag only with the database you are really using.
    – Gordon Linoff
    Nov 12 '18 at 20:06







2




2




I removed the incompatible database tags. Please tag only with the database you are really using.
– Gordon Linoff
Nov 12 '18 at 20:06




I removed the incompatible database tags. Please tag only with the database you are really using.
– Gordon Linoff
Nov 12 '18 at 20:06












2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















0














If I understand correctly, you can use row_number():



select t1.*, t2.col3
from t1 left join
(select t2.*, row_number() over (partition by col2 order by col3 nulls last) as seqnum
from t2
) t2
on t2.col2 = t1.col2 and t2.seqnum = 1;





share|improve this answer




















  • This answer would benefit from some words saying how it works..
    – Caius Jard
    Nov 12 '18 at 20:26










  • Sorry, I made the sample T1,T2 as an example. In reality, I have multiple values of b all with values of c or null. Same with p - that example only filters for the one c value.
    – apple1234
    Nov 12 '18 at 20:28






  • 1




    Gordon's logic fits your stated desired results. We can only give you what you ask for, and cannot pre-empt or imagine the rest of your data and requirements. Perhaps you'd like to expand your question to include some example data? (Or pre-create a SQLFiddle/DBFiddle link for us)
    – Caius Jard
    Nov 12 '18 at 20:33







  • 1




    @apple1234 . . . This answers the question that you have asked. If you have another question, ask it as a new question, with appropriate details, sample data, and desired results.
    – Gordon Linoff
    Nov 12 '18 at 20:35


















0














If you don't have proper keys you get an m:n-join instead of 1:n. You can calculate a row number for both tables which acts (in combination with col2) as key for the following join:



select t1.col1, t1.col2, t2.col3
from
(
select t1.*,
row_number() over (partition by col2 order by col2) as rn
from t1
) as t
left join
(
select t2.*,
row_number() over (partition by col2 order by col2) as rn
from t2
) as t2
on t1.col2 = t2.col2
and t1.rn = t2.rn;





share|improve this answer




















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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0














    If I understand correctly, you can use row_number():



    select t1.*, t2.col3
    from t1 left join
    (select t2.*, row_number() over (partition by col2 order by col3 nulls last) as seqnum
    from t2
    ) t2
    on t2.col2 = t1.col2 and t2.seqnum = 1;





    share|improve this answer




















    • This answer would benefit from some words saying how it works..
      – Caius Jard
      Nov 12 '18 at 20:26










    • Sorry, I made the sample T1,T2 as an example. In reality, I have multiple values of b all with values of c or null. Same with p - that example only filters for the one c value.
      – apple1234
      Nov 12 '18 at 20:28






    • 1




      Gordon's logic fits your stated desired results. We can only give you what you ask for, and cannot pre-empt or imagine the rest of your data and requirements. Perhaps you'd like to expand your question to include some example data? (Or pre-create a SQLFiddle/DBFiddle link for us)
      – Caius Jard
      Nov 12 '18 at 20:33







    • 1




      @apple1234 . . . This answers the question that you have asked. If you have another question, ask it as a new question, with appropriate details, sample data, and desired results.
      – Gordon Linoff
      Nov 12 '18 at 20:35















    0














    If I understand correctly, you can use row_number():



    select t1.*, t2.col3
    from t1 left join
    (select t2.*, row_number() over (partition by col2 order by col3 nulls last) as seqnum
    from t2
    ) t2
    on t2.col2 = t1.col2 and t2.seqnum = 1;





    share|improve this answer




















    • This answer would benefit from some words saying how it works..
      – Caius Jard
      Nov 12 '18 at 20:26










    • Sorry, I made the sample T1,T2 as an example. In reality, I have multiple values of b all with values of c or null. Same with p - that example only filters for the one c value.
      – apple1234
      Nov 12 '18 at 20:28






    • 1




      Gordon's logic fits your stated desired results. We can only give you what you ask for, and cannot pre-empt or imagine the rest of your data and requirements. Perhaps you'd like to expand your question to include some example data? (Or pre-create a SQLFiddle/DBFiddle link for us)
      – Caius Jard
      Nov 12 '18 at 20:33







    • 1




      @apple1234 . . . This answers the question that you have asked. If you have another question, ask it as a new question, with appropriate details, sample data, and desired results.
      – Gordon Linoff
      Nov 12 '18 at 20:35













    0












    0








    0






    If I understand correctly, you can use row_number():



    select t1.*, t2.col3
    from t1 left join
    (select t2.*, row_number() over (partition by col2 order by col3 nulls last) as seqnum
    from t2
    ) t2
    on t2.col2 = t1.col2 and t2.seqnum = 1;





    share|improve this answer












    If I understand correctly, you can use row_number():



    select t1.*, t2.col3
    from t1 left join
    (select t2.*, row_number() over (partition by col2 order by col3 nulls last) as seqnum
    from t2
    ) t2
    on t2.col2 = t1.col2 and t2.seqnum = 1;






    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered Nov 12 '18 at 20:09









    Gordon Linoff

    759k35293399




    759k35293399











    • This answer would benefit from some words saying how it works..
      – Caius Jard
      Nov 12 '18 at 20:26










    • Sorry, I made the sample T1,T2 as an example. In reality, I have multiple values of b all with values of c or null. Same with p - that example only filters for the one c value.
      – apple1234
      Nov 12 '18 at 20:28






    • 1




      Gordon's logic fits your stated desired results. We can only give you what you ask for, and cannot pre-empt or imagine the rest of your data and requirements. Perhaps you'd like to expand your question to include some example data? (Or pre-create a SQLFiddle/DBFiddle link for us)
      – Caius Jard
      Nov 12 '18 at 20:33







    • 1




      @apple1234 . . . This answers the question that you have asked. If you have another question, ask it as a new question, with appropriate details, sample data, and desired results.
      – Gordon Linoff
      Nov 12 '18 at 20:35
















    • This answer would benefit from some words saying how it works..
      – Caius Jard
      Nov 12 '18 at 20:26










    • Sorry, I made the sample T1,T2 as an example. In reality, I have multiple values of b all with values of c or null. Same with p - that example only filters for the one c value.
      – apple1234
      Nov 12 '18 at 20:28






    • 1




      Gordon's logic fits your stated desired results. We can only give you what you ask for, and cannot pre-empt or imagine the rest of your data and requirements. Perhaps you'd like to expand your question to include some example data? (Or pre-create a SQLFiddle/DBFiddle link for us)
      – Caius Jard
      Nov 12 '18 at 20:33







    • 1




      @apple1234 . . . This answers the question that you have asked. If you have another question, ask it as a new question, with appropriate details, sample data, and desired results.
      – Gordon Linoff
      Nov 12 '18 at 20:35















    This answer would benefit from some words saying how it works..
    – Caius Jard
    Nov 12 '18 at 20:26




    This answer would benefit from some words saying how it works..
    – Caius Jard
    Nov 12 '18 at 20:26












    Sorry, I made the sample T1,T2 as an example. In reality, I have multiple values of b all with values of c or null. Same with p - that example only filters for the one c value.
    – apple1234
    Nov 12 '18 at 20:28




    Sorry, I made the sample T1,T2 as an example. In reality, I have multiple values of b all with values of c or null. Same with p - that example only filters for the one c value.
    – apple1234
    Nov 12 '18 at 20:28




    1




    1




    Gordon's logic fits your stated desired results. We can only give you what you ask for, and cannot pre-empt or imagine the rest of your data and requirements. Perhaps you'd like to expand your question to include some example data? (Or pre-create a SQLFiddle/DBFiddle link for us)
    – Caius Jard
    Nov 12 '18 at 20:33





    Gordon's logic fits your stated desired results. We can only give you what you ask for, and cannot pre-empt or imagine the rest of your data and requirements. Perhaps you'd like to expand your question to include some example data? (Or pre-create a SQLFiddle/DBFiddle link for us)
    – Caius Jard
    Nov 12 '18 at 20:33





    1




    1




    @apple1234 . . . This answers the question that you have asked. If you have another question, ask it as a new question, with appropriate details, sample data, and desired results.
    – Gordon Linoff
    Nov 12 '18 at 20:35




    @apple1234 . . . This answers the question that you have asked. If you have another question, ask it as a new question, with appropriate details, sample data, and desired results.
    – Gordon Linoff
    Nov 12 '18 at 20:35













    0














    If you don't have proper keys you get an m:n-join instead of 1:n. You can calculate a row number for both tables which acts (in combination with col2) as key for the following join:



    select t1.col1, t1.col2, t2.col3
    from
    (
    select t1.*,
    row_number() over (partition by col2 order by col2) as rn
    from t1
    ) as t
    left join
    (
    select t2.*,
    row_number() over (partition by col2 order by col2) as rn
    from t2
    ) as t2
    on t1.col2 = t2.col2
    and t1.rn = t2.rn;





    share|improve this answer

























      0














      If you don't have proper keys you get an m:n-join instead of 1:n. You can calculate a row number for both tables which acts (in combination with col2) as key for the following join:



      select t1.col1, t1.col2, t2.col3
      from
      (
      select t1.*,
      row_number() over (partition by col2 order by col2) as rn
      from t1
      ) as t
      left join
      (
      select t2.*,
      row_number() over (partition by col2 order by col2) as rn
      from t2
      ) as t2
      on t1.col2 = t2.col2
      and t1.rn = t2.rn;





      share|improve this answer























        0












        0








        0






        If you don't have proper keys you get an m:n-join instead of 1:n. You can calculate a row number for both tables which acts (in combination with col2) as key for the following join:



        select t1.col1, t1.col2, t2.col3
        from
        (
        select t1.*,
        row_number() over (partition by col2 order by col2) as rn
        from t1
        ) as t
        left join
        (
        select t2.*,
        row_number() over (partition by col2 order by col2) as rn
        from t2
        ) as t2
        on t1.col2 = t2.col2
        and t1.rn = t2.rn;





        share|improve this answer












        If you don't have proper keys you get an m:n-join instead of 1:n. You can calculate a row number for both tables which acts (in combination with col2) as key for the following join:



        select t1.col1, t1.col2, t2.col3
        from
        (
        select t1.*,
        row_number() over (partition by col2 order by col2) as rn
        from t1
        ) as t
        left join
        (
        select t2.*,
        row_number() over (partition by col2 order by col2) as rn
        from t2
        ) as t2
        on t1.col2 = t2.col2
        and t1.rn = t2.rn;






        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered Nov 12 '18 at 22:26









        dnoeth

        44.8k31838




        44.8k31838



























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